How is the law being applied inequally?

The following:

“The fine could surpass $1 billion, one person said, as regulators seek to make an example of X to deter other companies from violating the law, the Digital Services Act.”

The motivation of the punishment is ulterior to the crime.

As the goal seems to be show of force, and not simply application of the law, it raises the question: why this company? And it creates a non-coded shadow system of (illegal or not) behaviour/people/companies that need to be made an example of, and (illegal or not) behaviour/people/companies that do not need to be made an example of.

the law being applied inequally or is it just that X is breakin it real bad?

Those aren’t mutually exclusive. Both could be happening at the same time.

You don’t have to do the same job the whole time?

One of the major reasons I became self employed instead

I’d rank my preference as:

(1) law applies equally to all.
(2) law does not apply equally to all, but at least they’re honest about it.
(3) law does not apply equally to all, but they pretend it does.

So I guess, depending on if one previously thought (1) or (3) to be true, this is either a deterioration or an improvement.

No! Your football team bad, mine good!

In essence this policy primarily imposes taxes on businesses, severily reduced the wealth of the billionaires, properties this forum often applauds. Funny how suddenly it’s not liked.

US politics really is like picking a favourite sports team :D

and we all know now who is to blame.

Central banks?

The only real reason I can think of

It’s mercantillism, a well studied subject.

1.084USD per EUR yesterday moved to 1.097USD per EUR today.

I think webassembly will come out on top as preferred runtime because of this, and the sandboxing.